I was reading books on Aryan race. The aryan invasion theory uses one very strong argument, that Vedas talk about animal especially cows but not about farming. Parts of Bihar collect history of rice farming, saptasindh about wheat. But Vedas don’t speak about it. Hence, they must have come from outside south asia (excluding Afghanistan). Really, the early recorded history of Kantipur says, it was ruled or Nepal was ruled by Gopalvamsi. And they first discovered Pasupatinath here who is assumed to be source of all Vedas. Why can’t then Vedas have been written by Gopalvamsi rishi on guidance of Shiva. If not so, why they don't have evidence of lord Shiva outside south Asia? All there tales that greek, persian and arya of vedas have similar languages, same aspirations etc. may be valid except for borrowing of civilization from somewhere else. Vedas are written in Nepal from wherever may they have been migrated to the valley.
Investors in equity market (secondary) are quite familiar with averaging practice of prices. When a stock of higher cost was already purchased but the prices drop down, then purchasing stocks at lower prices (must be probable to gain some increment in those latest prices) will average the per unit cost and given increment in latest prices but lower than previous prices till make loss over previously purchased stock lesser loss making. Now, thinking the institutional capacity of banks and financial institutions and production and distribution capacity of national economy, given flood of remittance, there must be a lag in mobilization of funds through banks. Thereby keeping interest rate at lower side till national economy's capacity to produce and distribute gets increased. However, let's imagine a scenario where funds are ever demanded and loans are distributed at higher cost. Deposit rates are increased in the name of liquidity problem or liquidity premium is so high that retu...
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