I was reading books on Aryan race. The aryan invasion theory uses one very strong argument, that Vedas talk about animal especially cows but not about farming. Parts of Bihar collect history of rice farming, saptasindh about wheat. But Vedas don’t speak about it. Hence, they must have come from outside south asia (excluding Afghanistan). Really, the early recorded history of Kantipur says, it was ruled or Nepal was ruled by Gopalvamsi. And they first discovered Pasupatinath here who is assumed to be source of all Vedas. Why can’t then Vedas have been written by Gopalvamsi rishi on guidance of Shiva. If not so, why they don't have evidence of lord Shiva outside south Asia? All there tales that greek, persian and arya of vedas have similar languages, same aspirations etc. may be valid except for borrowing of civilization from somewhere else. Vedas are written in Nepal from wherever may they have been migrated to the valley.
I just don’t have the energy to write against the popular teaching (perhaps I have read the wrong books) that Hindu jurisprudence is contained within the Smriti, mainly the Manusmriti, and the property systems of the two schools — Mitakshara and Dayabhaga (I forget which region each school belongs to). But these are laws, not jurisprudence. I admit I do not know the subject of jurisprudence deeply — such a tragedy — but it seems to me these were laws made for the time and place according to the wisdom of the sages of that era. The Smriti writers themselves clearly said that the source of their understanding is the Veda. So, anyone who wants to understand exactly what truth Hindus hold must study the Vedas. Those who cannot may go through the Upanishads (major texts distilled by sages to teach the essence of the Jñāna part of the Veda). Those who still find that difficult may turn to the Mahabharata (which is in itself a “great battle” to understand), or they may study Mīmāṁsā, Nyāya-śā...
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